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Old 02-26-2008, 12:04 AM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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I agree with what you have said concerning the KJB and that some people do make up wrong things. However, I disagree concerning having complete reliance in Strong's Concordance, because Strong's is not the authority on defining the meaning of English words, and it does contradict or stray away from the KJB English in several respects, especially by giving meanings other than what the KJB means.

1. Strong's pronunciations of the Hebrew are incorrect. E.g. "jod" is given as "yod". And so 3068 wrongly says "Yehovah".

2. 3070 says that "jireh" means "Jehovah will see (to it)", contradicting the interpretation of Genesis 22:14.

3. 7214, that is, unicorn, is said to mean "a wild bull". Even the LXX interpreters knew that it was "monoceros", one horn, i.e. unicorn of the KJB, not a wild bull.

4. 5959, the word which is in the prophecy about Mary in Isaiah 7:14, could therefore mean "a lass", "damsel, maid, virgin". But it must be "virgin".

5. 5775 is said to be a bird, a creature covered with feathers, etc., and yet even the Oxford English dictionary knows better, and Leviticus 11:19 lists one of the fowls as the bat: which are neither birds nor feathered. Leviticus 11:20 speaks of insects: these fowl are not feathered or birds.

6. 7549. Strong's thinks that firmament should be "expanse", and indicates that the word was only given because the sky apparently looks like an arch, when in reality it is a substantial barrier with firmness.

7. 8476. Badger. Strong's considers it to mean "antelope".

8. I would venture that numerous other examples may be given of such problems in Strong's Hebrew-English definitions.

9. Relying upon today's knowledge of Greek, as exemplified by Strong's, what should "pneuma" be rendered as in Acts 11:12 and 11:28?

10. And many other examples from the Greek, including his false claim that Jesus was speaking Chaldean (Syriack, now called Aramaic) at Mark 7:34, 15:34, etc., read John 19:17 and Acts 1:19 especially, and see what Strong's says about the proper Hebrew there. (He does not believe that the KJB is right to use the word "Hebrew".)

Strong's is clearly not an infallible authority, and numerous times imperfect or wrong.

Moreover, we cannot be certain that Strong used the correct underlying text word at every place, that is, the word he is presenting in the original language.

And we can be certain that Strong did not use a Cambridge Edition of the KJB, though this has no bearing on the underlying issues.

We find that the Scripture instructs us how to find the meaning of the words of the Bible, such as Proverbs chapter 1, which says it is in the law (of God), and Psalm 119:99 also shows where we should turn to. Therefore, I let the KJB be right, and Strong's wrong, though there are still uses for Strong's etc. once we have our priorities right. For many at the moment it would be better if they got rid of their Strong's.

Last edited by bibleprotector; 02-26-2008 at 12:08 AM.