I don't think that GAPS in Scripture are "theories"; they are "doctrine".
For example, John mentions of "the hour" in which "all" will be resurrected - to life and to damnation.
John 5:28 Marvel not at this: for the hour [singular]
is coming, in the which all [in general]
that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; [Is there a gap here? No mention.]
and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
1. Is the statement continuous? Yes.
2. Is a gap mentioned? No.
3. Is there, therefore, no gap?
"Line upon line, precept upon precept" (Is 28:13), by "comparing spiritual things with spiritual" (1Co 2:13), it was revealed later that "the hour" is 1,000 YEAR long and the "resurrection of life" is 1,000 YEARS ahead of the "resurrection of damnation".
Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Or course, there are many other gaps in Scripture. Concerning the gap between Genesis 1:1 and Genesis 1:2, here is a link that enlightened my mind on the issue: "To Gap or Not to Gap" (by Dr. David F. Reagan)
http://www.learnthebible.org/gap_or_not.htm