Hi Brandplucked,
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To the best of my understanding at this time I would have to say there there was not a perfect, ENTIRE Bible as we know it today which contained both the New and Old Testaments.
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OK, so since there wasn't a single "hold in your hand" complete inerrant perfect Bible in the year 1600 A.D., then obviously you do not believe that scripture teaches that there will always be a single, perfect, preserved Bible (or else those verses would be in error prior to 1611). You believe that Psalm 12:6 prophesied that someday there
will be, but we are in agreement about the lack of a single "hold in your hand" complete inerrant perfect Bible from the time the last scripture was originally penned in the first century A.D, until 1611.
So, where that leaves us is to determine:
- whether or not scripture prophesied a future single "hold in your hand" complete inerrant perfect Bible
- if scripture did, what that future single "hold in your hand" complete inerrant perfect Bible is
You have already seen my objections to your use of Psa 12:6 (they are listed again in my previous response to Vendetta Drive). Bottom line, is even if you are correct (which I do not believe you are) in both there being a prophecy in Psa 12:6, and the details of the fulfillment of that prophecy, you still have no authority to proclaim it as doctrine for the church. Nobody is doctrinally bound to believe it (for scripture doesn't specify this), and you should not be opposing and attacking fellow Christians who are not willing to go beyond what scripture states. If Jesus Christ himself were to appear to the world and proclaim that yes, Psa 12:6 is a prophecy about a future single "hold in your hand" complete inerrant perfect Bible, and yes, the fulfillment of that prophecy is the 1611 KJV, then we would be doctrinally bound to believe it because it was pronounced by someone with real authority.
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It seems that God preserved His perfect words in the majority of the Hebrew texts for the Old Testament, and the New Testament may well have been found among a majority of the Waldensian believers around the time of the Reformation. Can I prove this to your satisfaction? No, not at all.
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You don't have to prove it to me. I agree with that. God's preserved His perfect words in the majority of the Hebrew textS (plural!) for the Old Testament, and as your webpage puts it, the Old Latin and the Waldensian bibleS (plural!) contained (not "were") the perfect New Testament.
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Satan is always trying to discredit "The Bible, the words of God, Scripture" or however you wish to name it.
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I agree. Satan is also always trying to introduce new doctrines that are not from scripture.
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There is absolutely no need nor promise from God that every nation or every individual would have a perfect, inerrant and complete Bible in their language.
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I agree.
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It was only after the King James Bible came out and was well established among English speaking people that the church began to make their formal declarations concerning the inerrancy of Scripture.
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Are you saying that "the church" is authoritative, as scripture is? Also, the church never made any formal declarations about KJV-onlyism, just about "scripture".
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It seems that your view is that God's true words are STILL scattered "out there somewhere" among the remaining thousands of variant readings in obscure languages that the vast majority of people cannot read, and not one of you can know for sure which ones are right and which are not. You end up being Bible Agnostics, and every individual becomes his own little authority as to what God may or may not have said, and each one differs from everybody else.
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Not at all. My view is that God's words are in the same form now as they were prior to 1611, and that there is no authoritative reason to believe differently.
Brian