Thread: The sons of God
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Old 06-04-2009, 05:16 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Brother Tim View Post
Okay, let us do a little review:

Who are the "sons of God"?

In the NT, the phrase appears six times. In every case, it is identifying the saints, never heavenly or spirit non-human beings.

In the OT there are three locations where the phrase is used.
First, in Genesis 6, which we are discussing. There, these beings (no number given, only plural -sons-) produce offspring with multiple "daughters of men" who then become notable men of their era. Nothing more is said that narrows down the identities of these beings in the passage. The word "angel" does not appear as a link, while the title "angel" does appear elsewhere in Genesis.

Second, in the beginning two chapters of Job, "sons of God" are in the presence of the LORD when satan lays down his challenge. The obvious observation is that this takes place in Heaven during Job's lifetime. Again, nothing further is given to describe these beings. Again, the word "angel" does not appear as a link. "Angels" does appear later in Job 4.

Third, in Job 38, the LORD uses the phrase "sons of God" to identify heavenly beings who shouted for joy during the beginning stages of earth's creation. Again, the term "angel" was absent.

The OT "sons of God" have been assumed variously to be:

[1] Heavenly angelic or non-angelic beings (in Job 1-2 & 38)
[2] The spirits/souls of early OT saints (Job 1-2 in particular)
[3] Angelic beings, more specifically, fallen angels (Genesis 6 in particular)
[4] Decendents of Seth (Genesis 6 in particular)

In its broadest sense, "sons of God" could describe any or all created beings, spiritual or physical. I will agree that Job 38 was not speaking of humans (duh). These are created heavenly beings of some type.

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Let us assume for a moment that those who support the "fallen angel" definition for Genesis 6 are right. I have these questions:

[1] When did the fallen angels fall? Most place this either prior to the six-day creation of earth, or during that time. Genesis 6 takes place much later. If 2 Peter and Jude are referring to this event, why did God allow them free reign for so long? On the other hand, if these passages refer to the event of rebellion, then these angels were already judged.

[2] How could this be limited in time scope or individuals participating? Are you claiming that all of the fallen angels chose to mate with human women all during the same pre-flood time period? If there were any who did not participate, then they were not under the 2 Peter/Jude judgment and therefore could have at a later point in time done the same thing.

[3] There appears to be two groups of thought: [a] The angels took on fleshly form in every aspect and thus the intercourse was possible. Then why would the offspring be any different than other human children? [b] The angels had some kind of created innate ability to impregnate women. Some have even compared this to Jesus' conception (which nauseates me!) This would require that God designed these spirit beings with spiritual sperm. Why?? Remember what Jesus said about the angels and marriage.

[4] IF giants were the resultant offspring (which as I have posted earlier, the sentence structure does not support), then this same behavior was present after the flood and throughout history, for there have been giants reported and documented. Does this not call into question the Jude judgment?

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Finally, Bro. Parrish and his new buddy, GT, mock this venerable old saint by asking,Again, I say: Not every creature in Heaven is an angel! Angels are ONE form of heavenly being.

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Enough for now...
Brother Tim,

I only had time to deal with your first out of four questions to us. I'll try to do the rest later (I'm sure you're excited about that!).

Quote:
Let us assume for a moment that those who support the "fallen angel" definition for Genesis 6 are right. I have these questions:

[1] a) When did the fallen angels fall? Most place this either prior to the six-day creation of earth, or during that time. b) Genesis 6 takes place much later. c) If 2 Peter and Jude are referring to this event, why did God allow them free reign for so long? d) On the other hand, if these passages refer to the event of rebellion, then these angels were already judged.
a) As a proponent of the gap theory I hold that the fallen angels fell sometime between Gen 1:1 and 1:2.
b) Yes, of course.
c)There are 2 subsets of fallen angels. They are those referred to in Jude and 2 Pet who are in chains until the judgement and those who are still free. There are fallen angels that remain free.
Quote:
Ps 78:49 He cast upon them the fierceness of his anger, wrath, and indignation, and trouble, by sending evil angels among them.
When you say "this event" I will assume you are referring to Gen 6 not the rebellion. Are you asking why God allowed the fallen angels to mate with human women at all or for a certain period of time or did He delay judgement and if so, why? God doesn't give us the answer to why He allowed it. This lack of information on His part has no bearing on whether or not the Son's of God are fallen angels.
d) Again, the verses can't refer to the rebellion because of Ps 78:49. There are two groups of fallen angels. All of the fallen angels obviously participated in Satan's rebellion. Some, but not all of the fallen angels left their own habitation.

Your sister,

Jennifer