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Old 07-01-2009, 11:06 PM
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Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey View Post
However, it should be obvious that the Greek "trumps" the English because the English was translated from the Greek. Were it not for the Greek NT, there would be no English NT.
If the Greek trumps English, then the Word of God is not fully in English. We would still need to be in subjection to those who really know Greek. Surely, God is not so weak to have His Word trapped in Greek, when He promised in Romans 16:26, "But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith".

If Greek were really the final authority, then there would be a perfect Greek standard edition. As it is, there is no perfect, flawless or complete Greek text in any extant copy. When it comes to agreement, the King James Bible only people are all looking to one common world-wide standard.

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey View Post
It is also obvious in the case of the coins that we are talking about that the Greek is much more specific than the English.
This is not obvious, except obviously a slight against our English Bible. If it were not translated properly into English in 1611, when and where is the proper English translation?

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey View Post
"Farthing" it just goes without saying that the Greek is more specific and more accurate than the English.
Since men do not know everything, but can believe that God is able to get His Word to us, then it is certain that "farthing" is a correct term, which accurately describes a quarter value coin. The truth is that farthings must have been used in the Roman Empire, and upon examination of facts, we find that this is the correct sense, for quarter value coins were used.

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey View Post
It is also not correct to say that "any coin worth 1/4th of another coin is considered a Farthing."
That is a straw man argument, because you are not quoting me. When we read "penny", "farthing", "pound" or "mile" in the Bible, we cannot assume that using the English word is wrong, just because there may be some peculiar differences between the present form of such things and what was used in the Bible times. (If present vulgar use is the standard, argument could be made against using the word "gay" or "bottle" or "glass", but the Bible English use of words is entirely accurate.)

To imply that a Greek or Roman word must be used is to say that God's Word should not be translated. Are we to have "pneuma", "pascha", etc. instead of our English words? If "penny" or "farthing" are inaccurate, then having the Scripture in English is "inaccurate" because it is a different language to Greek.

But if the Word of God is fully, sense-for-sense, in English, then we can rightly say that the English Bible is true, and that it is equal to what was originally inspired.