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Old 07-01-2009, 10:18 PM
Posts: n/a

This is an example of being confused by the "Greek", as though it "trumps" English. The word "farthing" always refers to a quarter value coin of low buying power. For example, we know that there was a Roman coin called the "quadrans", and that this was a quarter value coin. Thus, the word "farthing" in our English Bible is entirely accurate.
Bibleprotector, I am not wanting to beat a dead horse and it is clear that your mind is fixed on this issue. I also don't want to allow a friendly debate to turn into an argument and (although I may be wrong) you seem to be getting a little irritable over it.

However, it should be obvious that the Greek "trumps" the English because the English was translated from the Greek. Were it not for the Greek NT, there would be no English NT.

It is also obvious in the case of the coins that we are talking about that the Greek is much more specific than the English. When you have two different coins, the "Assarion" and the "Kodrantes" which were the Roman As and the Roman Quadrans and the As was worth 1/16th of a Denarius while the Quadrans was worth 1/64th of a Denarius, both translated "Farthing" it just goes without saying that the Greek is more specific and more accurate than the English.

It is also not correct to say that "any coin worth 1/4th of another coin is considered a Farthing." If that were true a Penny would also be a Farthing because it is worth 1/4 of a Groat. The translators could have saved a lot of time and translated every coin in the NT as "Farthing" because every coin mentioned is worth 1/4 of some other coin.