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Old 06-18-2009, 07:47 PM
Bro. Parrish
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CKG View Post
The "we" of 1 John 1:9 is referring to the "we' of 1 John 1:8 who say they have no sin and who are void of the truth....
I understand your view but as I have already proven, that is a matter of interpretation and you can trace the "WE" all the way up the chapter to verse 1, so that point is kinda moot. Look, we could debate that all night but there is no need for it because we have already scorched the ground there. All I'm saying is that suggesting that troubled believers who confess their sins TO GOD (exactly as the text instructs) are somehow using a spin off error from the RCC is simply nonsense in my book (and my book is the Bible). I guess we are never going to see it the same, but I'm okay with that.