[bibleprotector]

The first five Books could have been written in Egyptian, the language in which Moses was educated and the country where Israel had lived for years.

This kind of argument is flawed, because it can be used to justify anything, or to negate all the pointers in Scripture, tradition and science which are otherwise.

One thing is for sure, it twarn't Hebrew that Moses was a speakin' down thayer in Egypt",

This sounds like liberal theology. Suddenly Moses is stripped of Hebrew, and next we’ll find out that Jehovah is really Yahweh or something. While Moses knew the language of Egypt, he certainly also know how to communicate with the Hebrews.

and conversations in the Greek were certainly not spoken in Greek.

Again, devoid of all proof. The Scripture shows people in the New Testament speaking Greek and speaking Hebrew.

There had to be some translating going on somewhere either way you look at it.

Of course: just look at Pilate’s superscription for a start.

Just because you have second and third century Manuscripts that are written in Greek, does not mean that they were originally written in that language.

This is both baseless and a slur upon the learning of the King James Bible translators. The front page of the King James Bible says “out of the original tongues”. It wasn’t Greek for the OT and it wasn’t Hebrew or so-called “Aramaic” for the NT.