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Old 03-04-2008, 09:51 AM
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Biblestudent Biblestudent is offline
Join Date: Feb 2008
Location: Philippines
Posts: 662

Originally Posted by Pastor Mikie View Post
...If tongues was a sign for Israel (I'm assuming you mean exclusively), how do you explain Acts 10 & 11?

Acts 10:46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God.

These were gentiles.
The Gentiles spoke in tongues as a sign to Peter (a Jew) and to the JEWS who were with him. In Acts 10-11, God is showing Peter that he is changing his program - from the Law/Kingdom Program where the Jew is first to the Grace/Church Program where there is neither Jew nor Gentile. There is no tongues speaking in a purely Gentile congregation. That's a solid proof.