Thanks for the response. I'll agree that a man could drink wine, as long as he doesn't drink enough to get even the slightest change in his feeling (buzz, for lack of a better word). The reason I do not feel a man should is personal, but I feel it greatly damages your testimony. So, although this may be "lawful" for me, it is not expedient, because I feel it damages your testimony. As I'm sure you would agree. But I'm asking do you feel like this person who does choose to drink (and get drunk), or say in his heart "my Lord delayeth his coming", or "beats the menservants and maidens", etc. will be "cut asunder" and "dealt a portion with the unbelievers"? I do not. He's basically saying if a person who was saved (for sure) in this church age (that we're living in now) went to doing these things would not be raptured out with the church. If this be so, how come we find nothing about this in any of Paul's 13 epistles to the "church age saint"?
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