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Old 08-06-2008, 10:46 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by apostolicpeyt View Post
I don't know who wrote the "article" about the NKJV, BUT, that person really didn't study. Obviously the people here know that you must take the Greek and Hebrew into consideration, easiest way, Strong's Exhaustive Concordance. If you look up the verses that that person claimed were changed, you will see why the NKJV uses the "changed" words. All words from the Strong's that are in the definition for the AV. So, the NKJV still keeps the same meaning as the AV.
I find myself disagreeing to almost all that was said here.
1. The person who wrote the article you are referring to may indeed have done some study.
2. I don't think people here (at least, not all) believe that knowledge of Greek and Hebrew is necessary to understand the Word of God.
3. "Son" (KJV) and "Servant" (NKJV) certainly do not mean the same.