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Old 08-06-2008, 08:54 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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If the authority of Scripture resides in what has been supplied by God's providence in the common tongue, as manifest from the Reformation times, then Strong’s lexicon fails because:
a. it is not in the common tongue
b. it appeared long after the Reformation
c. it is counter to the Reformation scholarship
d. it is relative, uncertain and non-restrictive
e. it is interpretative, subject to opinion
f. it is of the Nicolaitan doctrine of putting something between God and man
f. it is placed as an idol

Strong’s lexicon is a newfangled work, which supplies meanings to Hebrew and Greek words which neither match the true sense as given in the King James Bible, and is based on the entirely false notion that the authority of Scripture yet resides in the original languages, that it must be divined out of such sources with no certain success (that the fullness of the Scripture is lost) and that men must elevate men with learning and certain hidden knowledge to be able to stand in behalf of the rest of Christendom to deliver the words of God to them (like the medieval Romanist priesthood).