[Cody1611]

I've been talking to this pentecostal guy on my forum and I have showed him verse after verse trying to explain to him that tongues are not for today. I'm going to show you some of his responses to what one of my members said. Please give your thoughts.

1 Cor. 1:22 is taken completely out of context. Read the entire passage, and you won't see tongues listed anywhere. Instead, the passage is saying that the Word is not wordly wisdom.

1 Cor. 14:22 says nonbelievers, not Jews. To say it means Jews is private interpretation, because ITS NOT THERE!

And Exodus 4:8...

8: And it shall come to pass, if they will not believe thee, neither hearken to the voice of the first sign, that they will believe the voice of the latter sign.

refers to Exodus 7:6-13

6: And Moses and Aaron did as the Lord commanded them, so did they.
7: And Moses was fourscore years old, and Aaron fourscore and three years old, when they spake unto Pharoah.
8: And the Lord spake unto Moses and unto Aaron, saying,
9: When Pharoah shall speak unto you, saying, Shew a miracle for you: then thou shalt say unto Aaron, Take thy rod, and cast it before Pharoah, and it shall become a serpent.
10: And Moses and Aaron went in unto Pharoah, and they did so as the Lord had commanded: and Aaron cast down his rod before Pharoah, and before his servants, and it became a serpent.
11: Then Pharoah also called the wise men and the sorcerers: now the magicians of Egypt, they also did in like manner with their enchantments.
12: For they cast down every man his rod, and they became serpents; but Aaron's rod swallowed up their rods.
13: And he hardened Pharoah's heart, that he hearkened not unto them; as the Lord had said.

OK, NOW... do you see what Exodus 4:8 is referring to? You take verses out of context and expect me to think that your "rightly dividing the Word of God?"

Come on, give me some other verses to back your claim. Remember, study closely what this guy said in his argument, and the verses he used: He has a pretty solid defense.

I never knew that the Holy Spirit and His works were only a sign to the Jews. Why don't you use your brain and find me a scripture that says that tongues actually ceased after the Jews rejected Stephen's message? You can't.

I think it's pretty obvious to look back at the Old Testament and see that the Jews required a sign. What do you guys think?