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Old 05-30-2009, 04:18 PM
slatts1611AV slatts1611AV is offline
Join Date: May 2009
Posts: 5

Originally Posted by Greektim View Post
If it has been there all the time, then I am missing the significance of the KJV's capitalization emphasis. If the KJV was bringing out a theological point like Melchizedek as a type of Christ by capitalizing "king", then what about the emphasis in capitalization pre-1611 or pre-English translations? The type might have been there, but the significance or the emphasis wasn't until the KJV. That seems to be 1 of 2 things: translators bias in the translation to make a theological point or new revelation.
I'm glad I can hold a Book in my hands and know its perfect. Maybe I'm just a dumb bunny, but after years of looking at "manuscript evidence"and the like, I realized that, at the end of the day, a person is going to humble themselves and realize that he is not the final authority or he is not.. Until that day comes, men will simply place themselves as that final authority. I'm not picking on you Brother Tim, but it just seems that when an answer is provided you look for a way 'out' of the answer, and then add several questions along with the first. I see no value to it whatsoever.

In Christ, Brother Shane