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Old 09-02-2008, 07:44 PM
rbratt
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Paladin54 View Post
Just last night, my father and I hosted a missionary couple and when they heard that I was "one of them", they responded that "That controversy is useless because the only correct translations are in the original Greek and Hebrew" And after I told him that his argument had no basis and that I had defeated it before, the conversation ended.

They just plain didn't care.
Ok, forgive my ignorance please. If there are no "originals" where did the KJV get its translation from? And it seems to me (outsider looking in, but looking for the truth) that you use the same argument for the KJV. You say nothing is valid unless it comes from the KJV. But that can not be because there had to be the "perfect inspired Word of god" before the KJV to translate it into the KJV, right? So are you saying the Greek and latin translations are imperfect? If that is the case, then how can the KJV be "perfect" if there are no "originals" to compare it to?

The more I read on here, the less I understand. I guess I will stick to reading my Bible (KJV/NIV parallel btw) and find my own answers as it looks like none of my posts will get to see the actual boards.