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Old 05-01-2008, 08:11 PM
sophronismos
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MDOC View Post
No. Keil & Delitzsch Commentary in the OT has the answer.
Is it based on a tradition of which Cambridge KJV is the pure Cambridge? Somehow I doubt it. So where do Keil & Delitzsch get their answer? From the Hebrew text? I don't know, but I suppose you do. I also suppose you were being sarcastic like that would be Bibleprotector's way of getting around having to go to the Hebrew, he would go to Keil & Delitzsch. Very clever.