Thread: 1611 vs 1769
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Old 07-07-2009, 11:45 AM
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greenbear greenbear is offline
 
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Does God have respect unto a man who approaches Him with the attitude that he will believe what God says about Himself if it agrees with what the man believes God should be like? Of course not. A man should learn what God says about Himself and form his opinions based on God's revelation of Himself to man.

Does God have respect unto a man who approaches His word with the attitude that he will believe a particular translation, in a particular language, at a particular point in time is His pure, perfect, complete word only if He accomplished it in the way that man believes it should be accomplished? Of course not. A man should examine the internal evidence that that translation is indeed the pure, perfect, complete revelation of Himself to man then search to discover the means by which God has accomplished it.

CT, you are requiring of God that He would have preordained the use of apostrophes at that time and that He would have caused there to be no printing errors and that the spelling of names were standardized. Why require that of God to believe? Search for internal evidence to support your historical interpretation of God's preservation and refinement of His word down to the present time, not the other way around.

If you determine the KJB is not His perfect, pure, complete word that He has promised He would preserve then please tell us what is? Or perhaps in your case, which versions are? The point of your argument seems to be that the AV1611 was full of errors that had to be corrected so we are hypocrites to say the KJB is the only standard today, not one of many.

Last edited by greenbear; 07-07-2009 at 12:06 PM.