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Old 03-12-2009, 12:57 AM
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Originally Posted by CKG View Post
Looking at the context it's obvious John the Baptist is "the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him," and "rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice:". John was the one sent to prepare the way of the Lord and as a witness of Him so when Jesus came John could say "my joy therefore is fulfilled". If John was not the friend, but as an Israelite a member of the bride of Christ, he would not have said "He (Jesus) must increase, but I must decrease".

John 1
29. The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. 30. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. 31. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.

This passage doesn't say anything about a bride or bridegroom. It says "that he (Jesus) should be made manifest to Israel". Was He made manifest to Israel as their bridegroom? Wouldn't it make more sense to say He was made manifest as their Messiah (John 1:41) or their King (Matthew 4:17, 21:1-5)?
I made this explanation:
John 3:29 - John the Baptist is identifying to the bride who the bridegroom is, just like what He did IN JOHN CHAPTER ONE - that Christ should be made manifest to Israel.

Your explanation:
John 3:29 - John the Baptist is the friend of the bridegroom who prepares the way of the Lord (and that can also be seen in John 1:23).

So both of us used John 1 to explain the meaning of John 3:29. John 1 does not say that "the bridegroom be made manifest to the bride", nor does it say that "the friend of the bridegroom prepares the way for the bridegroom"; but we know that John 1 is indeed the CONTEXT of John 3:29. No doubt about it.