[Biblestudent]

pbiwolski: "To back up your belief/view, there must be at least one example in his post-I Cor. writings to indicate that Paul did not have a clear understanding of the available scriptures. This example would clearly prove that when writing I Cor. there was at least one thing for which he was waiting that was not yet revealed to him. This revelation would clear up this "dark glass" that he as well as the Corinthians were looking through. But you sit and think and...nothing. You search Paul's epistles...and still nothing. How can this be? It has to be in there, right?!?

Wrong.

Because you cannot and will not produce such evidence to fortify your theory, I authoritatively proclaim that Paul did not "know in part" in relation to coming revelations/scriptures, but rather he knew only in part just as we do today. Therefore, "that which is perfect" is yet to come, and one day... (maybe today!)..."

1. Paul did have a CLEAR understanding of the available Scriptures, but he knows "in part" because "all Scripture" is NOT yet available to make the man of God "perfect".

2. Paul knew and prophesied "in part" because "perfect" knowledge of the unavailable was impossible and prophecy to fill in that which was yet missing was a necessity.

3. To make "that which is perfect" to refer to Christ's coming seems a stretch, since the context (1 Cor. 12-14) defines the "in part" as referring to the gifts that are going to vanish WHEN "that which is perfect is come". Are we to prophesy in part, know in part, heal in part, speak in tongues in part until the Rapture? Notice that the chapter (1 Cor.13) begin with TONGUES (v.1) and again mentioned tongues (v.8). Are we to speak in tongues until the Rapture? Forbid not to speak in tongues in 1 Corinthians 14, but 1 Corinthians 13 says tongues shall cease. When? At the Rapture?

4. In answer to your challenge, show me that Paul had all of the Word of God in 1 Corinthians and I will show you that he received all the other "visions and revelations" after that.

Finally, I know that we know "in part", in the practical sense, until Jesus comes. So I am open to either view. But I know also that we no longer know "in part", in the doctrinal/dispensational sense, since we have the "perfect" Word of God and it is NOW made MANIFEST.