Hey, I'm back, but now with hands full. So, I hope I'm answering right on target.
1. First, if "that which is perfect" is the coming of Jesus Christ at the Second Coming (on earth), then there will be no more prophesyings and speaking in tongues after that, which is true. BUT...
Isn't the Rapture a coming of Jesus Christ? Isn't that a "face to face" with Christ? Are we going to speculate that the coming referred to in 1 Corinthians is the Second Coming of Christ on earth and not the Rapture of the Church?
If the "in part" shall be done away at the Second Coming (on earth), does it mean that at the Rapture, with glorified bodies, we STILL know in part??
2. Next, if "that which is perfect" is the coming of Jesus Christ at the Rapture, then there will be no more prophesyings and speaking in tongues after that. BUT...
According to Joel 2 and Acts 2, in the "last days" WHEN the sun and moon be darkened, in the "day of the Lord", the Holy Spirit will be "poured out" and the shall dream dreams and see visions - there goes prophesyings after the Rapture.
(By the way, I didn't have time to put all Scripture references here. But should anyone think it's all speculation, I'm willing to show the verses.)
Mark 16 tells us that "these signs shall follow them that believe" to confirm the word of the gospel of the kingdom which will also be preached during the Tribulation period. Gospel of the kingdom REQUIRES signs - tongues included! So tongues will be used after the Rapture.
Now we know "in part", but when Jesus comes at the Rapture, the "in part" knowledge shall vanish away. What about the tongues? What about prophesyings? They're mentioned TOGETHER in 1 Corinthians 13:8. Why take one and leave the other?
Remember, that in the first century (before the completed revelation of the mystery and of the canon), they know "in part" and thus needed TONGUES (as a sign to confirm the word to the Jew during the Acts transition period) and PROPHESYINGS (since the prophecy of Scripture is not yet complete).
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