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Old 05-19-2008, 06:49 PM
freesundayschoollessons
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Psalms 119:140 Thy word is very pure: therefore thy servant loveth it.

Proverbs 30:5 Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him.

Biblically, this is David's declaration that God's word is pure. It is pure in the sense that what God says will come true. It is "tested."

Even so, we will set our interpretive differences aside here and assume your interpretation to be true.

If you apply these verses to the KJV in the sense that it is "pure" (without error), then you have a problem. Even the 1611 differs greatly from the Cambridge edition that Bibleprotector wants to establish as the standard. Within KJVOnlyism, there is ongoing textual criticism. So, how can the KJV be considered pure? Even the smallest changes to a pure text renders it impure. Remember the "jot" and "tittle" passage?

Now, I will present why I believe, biblically, the KJVOnly position is wrong...