View Single Post
Old 06-03-2009, 10:04 AM
George's Avatar
George George is offline
Join Date: Mar 2008
Location: Broken Arrow, Oklahoma
Posts: 891
Default Re; " Question on Acts 8:32"

Originally Posted by boaz212 View Post
I am going through book of Acts. I am in chapter 8. While going through this passage, I have one question.

Act 8:32 The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth:

Isa 53:7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.

1.Was the eunuch reading this passage in the Hebrew where it says sheep/her shearers? or lamb/his shearer as stated in the KJB?

I checked with Dr. Ruckman's "Errors" in the KJB so I understand male lamb and female sheep don't bleat. I am just wondering why God made the change going from the Hebrew text to the Greek text?

Thanks in advance for all your help. God bless.

Aloha brother boaz212,

The answer is quite simple. The "AUTHOR" of a written work has the "right" to add to; or subtract from; or quote his work in any that way he chooses. {I do it myself quite often.}

Often times when you read Old Testament quotes made by the Lord Jesus Christ or His Apostles in the New Testament you will see slight differences in the wording. Are they mistakes? I trow not. God, in His infinite wisdom, chose the wording (in the New Testament) to either demonstrate or emphasize a point He wants to make to to the reader of the New Testament.

For example:
Exodus 20:13 Thou shalt not kill.

Matthew 19:18 He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
Thus explaining WHAT KIND of "killing" is PROHIBITED in Exodus 20:13.

And again - regarding the worship of God, the Lord Jesus Christ states
[. . . Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve. - Matthew 4:10 & Luke 4:8]
A search of the Old Testament indicates that He was either quoting Deuteronomy 10:20 or Deuteronomy 6:13:
Deuteronomy 10:20 Thou shalt fear the LORD thy God; him shalt thou serve, and to him shalt thou cleave, and swear by his name.

6:13 Thou shalt fear the LORD thy God, and serve him, and shalt swear by his name.
By quoting the Old Testament in the way that He did the Lord Jesus Christ revealed that the worship of God is NOT just "reverential trust" as is taught in the "Christian" Schools around the U.S.A.; but that there should be a definite element of genuine "FEAR" involved when a man (or woman) worships God - that is if we are to worship Him according to the Scriptures, i.e. "in spirit and in truth" [John 4:23-24]

The following verses give additional support for the use of the English word fear in the place of the word worship in certain verses in the King James Bible:

Deuteronomy 10:12 And now, Israel, what doth the LORD thy God require of thee, but to fear the LORD thy God, to walk in all his ways, and to love him, and to serve the LORD thy God with all thy heart and with all thy soul,

Deuteronomy 13:4 Ye shall walk after the LORD your God, and fear him, and keep his commandments, and obey his voice, and ye shall serve him, and cleave unto him.

Joshua 24:14
Now therefore fear the LORD, and serve him in sincerity and in truth: and put away the gods which your fathers served on the other side of the flood, and in Egypt; and serve ye the LORD.

1Samuel 12:14
If ye will fear the LORD, and serve him, and obey his voice, and not rebel against the commandment of the LORD, then shall both ye and also the king that reigneth over you continue following the LORD your God:

1Samuel 12:24 Only fear the LORD, and serve him in truth with all your heart: for consider how great things he hath done for you.

Psalms 2:11 Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling.
Now brother, don't get me wrong here - this comment is NOT directed at you (because I know that you are NOT a Bible skeptic or corrector); but like I said to begin with: "The answer is quite simple. The "AUTHOR" of a written work has the "right" to add to; or subtract from; or quote his work in any way that he chooses." When there are differences between a New Testament quote of an Old Testament passage, instead of looking for "errors" (as the modern day Bible skeptics & correctors do), we should be looking for "LIGHT" (as genuine Bible believers should do).

Psalms 33:4
For the word of the LORD is right; and all his works are done in truth.