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Old 04-19-2009, 09:54 AM
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George George is offline
 
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Default Re: " What's wrong with the Paraphrase Bible?"

Kirandio's quote (partial):
Quote:
"You said "in any depth", so there was miscommunication, because I considered "any" to mean that as long as I had looked into both sides even as little as 30 seconds (I spent more than that btw), that would qualify. Am I correct in what you meant to say was "in any significant depth"? The FINAL AUTHORITY idea is interesting, I will look into it some more.

My definition of the Bible is the collection and compilation of God's Scriptures. These Scriptures are originally written in Greek and Hebrew. For me to be able to understand the Scriptures, they must be translated into my language so I can read them, or I can learn Greek and Hebrew to read the Scriptures. A person reading the Scriptures must be able to understand the meaning of the Scriptures for them to be of any use to the person. The actual words of the Scriptures are in Greek and Hebrew. These words were copied in manuscripts.
"
Kirandio,

First off, before you start to reply to someone's Thread or Post, it would be far more understandable if you would simply identify who you are replying to. On the other hand, considering what you have Posted thus far - your Posts demonstrate that "clarity" isn't one of your strong "suits, and neither is sincerity or forthrightness.

Most of your reply is Sophistical gibberish and just a whole lot more of "your own private personal opinions”. You try to portray yourself as someone who knows something about the "Which Bible" issue, but your WORDS betray you to be just another disbelieving "Christian" who casts doubt on the truth of God's Holy words and who has NO FINAL AUTHORITY other than "your own private personal opinions”.

Your "your own private personal definition" of the BIBLE is most instructive:
Quote:
"My definition of the Bible is the collection and compilation of God's Scriptures."
So, according to your "opinion" - the "Bible" is NOT A BOOK (that someone can hold in their hands), but a "collection and compilation of God's Scriptures"! According to "your own private personal definition" - the BIBLE is LIMITED to the "originals" and/or the "original languages". And so, according to you, the "BIBLE" equals every single Hebrew and Greek manuscript existing on Earth; whether it is the various available Hebrew manuscripts; or whether it is a scrap (or scraps)of "papyrus" (written in Greek) found in some ancient dump in Egypt; or the corrupt "Codex's" (Uncial - Capital letter Greek manuscripts) Vaticanus (B), Sinaiticus (Aleph), Alexandrinus (A) or the most depraved of all "codex's" - "Bezae" (D); or the thousands of "Cursive" (lower case Greek manuscripts) manuscripts). According to "your own private personal definition": ALL of the above = "THE BIBLE".

But what of the "Greek" Lectionaries? And what about the "church fathers" quotations of Scripture (written in "Greek" - of course!)? Will you "include" them in "your own private personal definition" of "THE BIBLE"?

Can you not see how utterly ridiculous "your own private personal definition" of the BIBLE is? The BIBLE IS A BOOK (that a person can hold in their hands) NOT ALL of the extant manuscripts (only in Hebrew & Greek - of course!), none of which is "COMPLETE", that exist in the world! The BIBLE IS A BOOK (that a person can hold in their hands) that contains ALL of the words of God!

There are "bibles" (books that you can hold in your hand) that contain SOME of the words of God; there are "bibles" (books that you can hold in your hand) that contain MOST of the words of God; and then there is the King James Bible (a BOOK that a person can hold in their hands) which contains ALL of the words of God, exactly as God has preserved them - Perfect, Holy, Inspired, Infallible, and without error.

"Your own private personal definition" of the BIBLE is not only RIDICULOUS, it is also UNTENABLE; that is, it CANNOT be defended - at least NOT by anyone that is in their "right mind"!

"THE BIBLE" is A BOOK that a person can hold in their hands. From 1611 to the middle 1900's the HOLY BIBLE (AV1611/King James Bible) reigned SUPREME amongst Christians of all "Denominations" and "Sects" (and even most of the "Cults" - with the exception of the Catholic Church). In the last 100 years better than 100 versions ("bibles") have been produced in English, and they ALL have one thing in common - They DIFFER (words) from the King James Bible (some MORE than others) and pretty much AGREE (words) with each other.

You are free to choose whichever "bible" you want to use, but don't try to "con" us into thinking that you have anything "new" to add to the "Which Bible" controversy; because so far, all we have seen (your Posts) is the same old Humanistic reasoning - that is: uncertainty, ambiguity, confusion, doubt, distrust, and faithlessness, that we have seen for over 40 years from "Christians" who know very little about the subject, but who have decided the issue, based on their "own private personal opinions”; and who have NO IDEA WHERE God's Holy word is, or WHAT IT IS - and are condemned by their own anemic testimony

You have NO FINAL AUTHORITY other than "your own private personal opinions” and to "PRETEND" that the Incarnate WORD is your "Final Authority", MINUS His Holy written word is the height of hypocrisy, deceit, casuistry, and duplicity! Your very words make a MOCKERY of the very Scriptures you "profess" to believe in!

You're not "interested" in "THE TRUTH", you're interests lay in doubt, uncertainty, and confusion. To put it simply - you are a "Christian" SOPHIST (and not the first one by a long shot), and nothing that we do or say will change that fact! . . . . "be NOT faithless, but believing".

Proverbs 29:20 Seest thou a man that is hasty in his words? there is more hope of a fool than of him.

Proverbs 26:12 Seest thou a man wise in his own conceit? there is more hope of a fool than of him.

Last edited by George; 04-19-2009 at 10:15 AM.