[Manny Rodriguez]

Originally Posted by bibleprotector

You have misquoted Scripture , it actually says from this generation.

Nope, wrong again. The following verses tell us God's words are preserved from generation to generation.

“As for me, this is my covenant with them, saith the LORD; My spirit that is upon thee, and my words which I have put in thy mouth, shall not depart out of thy mouth, nor out of the mouth of thy seed, nor out of the mouth of thy seed's seed, saith the LORD, from henceforth and for ever.” Isa. 59:21

“He hath remembered his covenant for ever, the word which he commanded to a thousand generations.” Ps. 105:8

Also Ps. 78:1-8, Ps. 119:152, Isa. 40:8, and 1 Pet. 1:23-25.

Are God’s words in English any less divine?

I never said they were. Of course, their is a lot of things I never said but you have the incurable habit of putting words in people's mouth.

The KJB is, but Scrivener’s work is not final nor perfect. You will notice that 1 John 5:7 stands as pure Scripture in the KJB. You will see that Scrivener’s Greek undermines 1 John 5:7.

No it doesn't. Not in the edition of his text that I have. Try again. I challenge you to show me one edition of Scrivener's text where 1 Jn. 5:7 is not in it's entirety.

Also, there are other problems with Scrivener’s artificial construction.

Prove it. I double dog dare you. All you have to do is show me any omissions or additions that contradicts the KJB. Just one would do.

I can tell you that it is not pure and perfect, because it is not agreeing with the KJB.

No you can't because you cannot provide one fraction of an example of an error in Scrivener's text. Once you can do that, than you can say it is "not pure and perfect". Until then, all you can do is do what you're doing now - blowing smoke.

Unlike the variations in the Hebrew scrolls, of which none is 100% perfect today!

Prove it. Provide just one textual error in the Daniel Bomberg edition of the Masoretic text. I challenge you.

Notice that the following verses specifically require the exact Scriptures in non-original languages:

Isa 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.

Ro 10:19 But I say, Did not Israel know? First Moses saith, I will provoke you to jealousy by them that are no people, and by a foolish nation I will anger you.

Re 14:6 And I saw another angel fly in the midst of heaven, having the everlasting gospel to preach unto them that dwell on the earth, and to every nation, and kindred, and tongue, and people,

To this can be added Matthew 28:19, 20 and Romans 16:26 etc.

I know what you are trying to imply. And we've already gone over this before. But no, these verses have nothing to do with the KJB. You are twisting scripture to fit your British Israelism.

This means that you do not hold to the perfection of the KJB as an entity, but merely as a derived form, and actually place emphasis upon continuing original language “masters” rather than translation “puppets”.

No it doesn't. I hold to the perfection of the KJB because it is perfect. There are no errors in it. Plain and simple.

What you are saying is that the full authority of Scripture cannot be invested into a translation.

Nope. This is the 1028th time you've tried to convince me that I've said something that I never said.

I know there are no conflicts, because the KJB gives in English exactly what was inspired, and that the TR and the MT were the conduits by which the exact truth came to be in English.

Dr. Jeckyl and Mr. Hyde? Are you listening to you contradict yourself here?

The Spirit did not say anything about emphasising the originals.

He didn't say that it was wrong to consult the original language texts either.

* Please produce the perfect exact text in one form in Hebrew and in Greek, or show how it is possible today to know every last word in Hebrew and Greek with nothing added or taken away.

For Hebrew - The Ben Chayyim Masoretic Text, Second Rabbinical Edition, printed by Daniel Bomberg. For Greek - The 1894 NT of Scrivener (Textus Receptus).

These texts are the very Hebrew and Greek words that underlie the KJV word for word.

Please explain why 100% of the sense could not be fully in English to the point where the English alone preserves 100% of what was communicated in the originals.

I never said 100% of the sense could not be fully in English. It IS (in the KJV). I believe the KJB portrays in English exactly what God said to the original writers in Greek and Hebrew.

* Please state why the English is not sufficient to stand alone without any necessary reference to the original languages today.

The KJB is more than sufficient to interpret and define itself. I never said it wasn't. I never said that it was mandatory or a necessity to go to the Greek and Hebrew in order to understand the KJB. You're barking up the wrong tree. You should take up this argument with someone who actually believes these things.

What I said is that I agree with Shelton Smith that it is not wrong if someone wanted to consult the Greek and Hebrew when studying the definition of a word. Does he HAVE to? No. But is it an option. Yes. And when he does so, is he a Bible corrector or apostate? No.