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Old 06-19-2009, 07:58 AM
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Fredoheaven Fredoheaven is offline
 
Join Date: Mar 2009
Location: Philippines
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tonybones2112 View Post
Brother, as KJV believers we frequently rise to the occasion when someone tries to "go to the Greek" to correct what the English says, but when confronted with the clear statements that crosses our denominational beliefs, we are guilty of the same thing: twisting the English. Why can't we not "guess" and just let the word of God say what it says? When Peter said water baptism in Acts 2 was "for" the remission of sins, it meant just what it said, for the remission of sins. That was the commandment of Mark 16. That was the commandment given to Paul and when Ananias said to wash away his sins that's exactly what the man meant, that's exactly what Paul, a Pharisee and Hebrew of the Hebrews, understood. Paul's baptism is not our baptism(I Cor. 12:13)because there were signs following Paul's baptism(his sight restored).

There is no "where unto", "because of", "for to", "beknownst upon", in Acts 2 or 9: the KJV translators knew what Peter said and meant, why don't we? Why do we deplore "correcting the English with the Greek" and then do the same to redefine English?

Why do we condemn Covenant/Reformed theology and then practice it?

Grace and peace brother Fred, my "guessing" days are over.

Tony
Thanks bro. Tony, still learning your mother tongue English. Great input here. I must end my best guess on my comments. I have to live and believe what the Word of God said to me and not what others say. I have to practice what I preach and I believe that's what I learned from you.