Originally Posted by bibleprotector

There are differences between "spirit" and "Spirit" in various places throughout the King James Bible throughout its history from 1611 to 1769. However, it is obvious that the changes which have occurred more recently are of the wrong nature. By this I mean the changes of "spirit" to "Spirit" in Acts 11:12, 11:28 and 1 John 5:8. These changes have been made against the 1769 tradition, and for the wrong reasons.

This specific issue concerning the three verses I mention does not have anything to do with the 1611 Edition, because we know that the consistent distinction between "Spirit" and "spirit" was not presented throughout the 1611 Edition. The issue has to do with that the 1769 Edition was correct, and that any small problems then have certainly now been resolved. However, it seems like more and more variations are appearing, including erroneous new "King James" versions, etc.

While people might say that doctrine is not affected by any of the differences in the King James Bible from 1611-1769, there is still the problem of potential misreading and miscommunication if a typographical error is allowed to stand. For example, Joshua 19:2 is supposed to read "Beer-sheba, or Sheba", which is both 1611 and Pure Cambridge Edition. But in 1629 to 1769 it was "Beer-sheba, and Sheba", and in 1769 to 1817, "Beer-sheba, Sheba". When you look at verse 6, it says there are thirteen cities, but if it is Beersheba AND Sheba it would have to be fourteen. It that was true, the Word of God would be "errant". But it is a typographical error that came about early on, and that is why there has been a purification of the presentation of the King James Bible, so every word is actually being known and given correctly at every place. That is also why it is inaccurate to say that the textual history of the KJB is limited to 1769, or that people are using the 1769 Edition today.

Not only did the NKJV not take this into account properly, but they repeated for many years the error of "whom he" at Jeremiah 34:16. That is besides all their massive other changes away from the King James Bible while pretending that they are just updating the language. (I say pretending, though they plainly state that they have used a different Greek text to translate from, but that was not emphasised when many people switched over to it back in the 1980s.)