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Christ or the New Testament people did NOT use “Aramaic”,
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Although Christ knew all languages, he did not normally use the Syrian language. It is possible that the Christians at Antioch did, but considering that the Selucid Greeks had ruled the area prior, I suppose that Greek would have been fairly common there.
In 1611, the "u" was presented as "v" as the first letter, like "vnto" instead of "unto", so "Jesus" was then printed as "Iesus".
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otherwise we would be locked to printers’ errors and endless variations in spelling, etc.
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There is a correct presentation of the King James Bible, and it is not that of 1611, which has plenty of printing mistakes, spelling variations and so on. Just because it is the "earliest" does not make it the best. After all, translators were involved in the reviewing work of 1638.