Quote:
Originally Posted by freesundayschoollessons
I will simply have to go my own way.
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FSSL, don't leave. I am coming into this argument kinda late, but I completely agree w/ your posts. I have enjoyed reading your arguments.
Somthing that just hit me is that English does not have a jot or tittle (though a titlle can be illustrated in English: O/Q; P/R; I/J; C/G). That refers to the Hebrew letter yod (jot) and the little mark that distinguishes different Hebrew letters (like a dalet from a resh, check Psalm 119 to see the differences). Sounds like even the supreme translators of the KJV knew well enough to go back to the original languages.
FSSL, as all good Dispos know, Christ offered the Davidic Kingdom to Israel. Matthew exclusively used the term "Kingdom of heaven." Check your Greek for me. Did Christ really say "heaven" or "of the heavens"? It is my contention that Matthew was tapping into the great Kingdom theology of Daniel as a resource. Christ was referring to the Davidic Kingdom coming from the sky (cf. Dan. 7:13). Thus the literal translation (that not many English translations get right) is "the kingdom of the heavens." Even the genitive phrase could be rendered as a genitive of source interpreted as "kingdom
from the heavens." What do you think? Oh by the way, that means the KJV got it wrong. They translated a plural as a singular. I don't think it was an accident, though. I think it was a conscience thing they did that was motivated by their Amillennial theology. Sometimes a translatoin can be more than a translation. It can be an interpretation (may genoito, KJV transation "God forbid"). Just something to chew on.
Boy, I just opened a hornets nest didn't I?
