Quote:
Originally Posted by PaulB
Hi
Can anyone help me with a couple of questions?
Many of the KJB critics I have encountered have thrown the following statements at me concerning its validity.
The word "heaven" in Geness one is a mistake that should be rendered as "heavens" - How do I answer them?
Also, the different spelling of names Elias (NT) - Nebuchadrezzar (Jer) ect.
Also; Has anyone taken a look at this site:
www.christfirstministries.com/default.aspx
Some interesting stuff on it! |
Paul, you
never answer a "question" by a KJV "critic", you don't give them the initiative but deal with them from the Scriptures. They are using you merely for a whetrock hone their own "debating" skills and boost their flesh egos.
All KJV "critics" hold to the fantasy that "only the original manuscripts are inspired". I call them all Original Manuscipt Frauds.
Ro 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.
Since there is no such thing as an "uninspired" word of God, if only the "original manuscripts" are inspired, then should this verse not read:
Ro 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the original manuscripts.
If only the original manuscripts are "inspired"
then there has been no salvation since the "original manuscript" containing the gospel of Christ decayed.
They use the tepid excuse that this verse is the proof text for inspiration of the "original manuscripts":
II Tim. 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
They fail to see or like the good Jesuits many of them are, will deny that "all" Scriptures includes
translations and copies. They also paint themselves into
this corner with the verse immediately preceding the one above
II Timothy 3:15 And that
from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
We must beggar the question: Did Timothy have the "original manuscripts"?
Lu 4:21 And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.
Did Jesus have the "original manuscript" for Isaiah in this verse?
Ac 8:32 The place of
the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth:
Ac 8:35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the
same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.
Did Philip and the eunuch have the "original manuscript" for Isaiah?
"Nebuchadrezzar", "Noah", "Noe", "Elijah", "Elias", all represent different spellings of different languages at different times by different authors. Another question I'd ask them Paul: Ask them if they spend as much time
preaching the cross, Christ crucified, as they do being bible "critics", and let me know the answers you get.
Grace and peace brother
Tony