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Old 05-30-2009, 01:34 PM
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George George is offline
Join Date: Mar 2008
Location: Broken Arrow, Oklahoma
Posts: 891
Default Re: ""Rightly Dividing" The Book of Acts"

Originally Posted by Forrest View Post
Acts 2:37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do? {Men and brethren = Only Jews}
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. {Only Jews}
Greetings Brother George. I see the division between the Apostle Peter's Gospel and the Apostle Paul's in Acts. That indeed is obvious when we simply examine the words and receive them as written. Something, by the way, I did not see the importance of doing until joining this Bible forum. Like many, I've always heard that Acts 2:38 means repent and then be baptized for [because] your sins have been remitted. I must confess, I have always been uneasy in my inner man with that explanation. Rightly dividing the book of Acts is, in my opinion, provides a better and clearer explanation.

But what was the significance of baptism in order for the [Jew, Hebrew, Israelite] to have their sins remitted? I understand receiving "the gift of the Holy Ghost" after repentance. But why was baptism significant in order for their sins to be remitted? I realize the simple answer is because that's what the word says. But is there a Biblical connection made elsewhere for repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins specifically for the Jew?

Dear brother Forrest,

I love you in the Lord - BUT you sure make it "hard" on a fellow brother in Christ!

WHY is it - that you ALWAYS ask the toughest questions? I've been "cogitating" on the very same thing that you have asked - WHAT is the "significance" in the differences in water Baptism (BEFORE the cross; AFTER the death, burial, and resurrection - but before the Nation of Israel's "rejection" of the Apostles & their "message"; and AFTER God's "rejection" of the nation of Israel and His turning to the Gentiles?) I believe that they are all "different", but the SIGNIFICANCE of that "difference" - that's another matter for another time, and to be perfectly honest, I'm not sure I know the answer. But, since it is always a "challenge" to try to answer your most perceptive questions - I will attempt to answer these questions also, but NOT today.

I have been fighting a cold (or flu?) since Tuesday and need to store up some "energy" for my next challenge.