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Old 04-21-2009, 05:02 PM
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George George is offline
 
Join Date: Mar 2008
Location: Broken Arrow, Oklahoma
Posts: 891
Default Re: "Could There Be a Connection?"

Quote:
"First, I would like to thank Brother George for his study on the baptism of the dead. I too had often been confused by that, what you said made a lot of sense.

So, in the early church did believers participate in a "baptism for the dead" ceremony? Or did I misunderstand you?"
Aloha brother Winman,

I do not believe that their ever was a special "ceremony" involving "a" baptism for the dead (like the Mormons).
Quote:
1 Corinthians 15:29 Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
I believe that when a saved (born again) child of God is baptized (in water) that it not only represents our identification with the death, burial, and resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ [Romans 6:4 & Colossians 2:12], but that it also signifies that those who have died in Christ, (i.e. "the dead") are going to rise again someday. And just as the living saved child of God (undergoing the baptism) came up out of the water - to "walk in newness of life", someday "the dead" are going to come up out of the grave to "walk in newness of life" for all eternity.
Quote:
Colossians 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

Romans 6:4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
I do NOT believe that when a Christian is "baptized for the dead" that that "Baptism" somehow SUBSTITUTES for a "baptism" that "the dead" may or may not have received (that's what the Mormons do); instead, I believe that (down through the church age) when each and every saved, born again child of God has been baptized (in water) that this showed forth a wordless "picture" or a simple "illustration" of what is going to happen to "the dead" (in Christ) someday; in which case then, whenever a living child of God is baptized (in water) they are showing forth (by a "picture") that all those who died in Christ are going to (someday) rise again.

Since "the dead" can no longer speak or testify (their bodies are "asleep" in the grave) - when the living child of God is baptized, that "Baptism" is not only a testimony for himself, but it is also a testimony on behalf of "the dead" in Christ (that can no longer testify) that they too are going to come up out of the grave - just like the individual who is/was being baptized came up out of the water.

If I am right, then every single individual child of God (since the church began) who has been baptized (in water), has been "baptized for the dead" (in Christ), so that, although "the dead" cannot speak - they still "speak" through the one being baptized. Water Baptism then, although it bestows no special "efficacy" on the one being baptized, does signify that just as the Lord Jesus Christ came up out of the grave - someday "the dead" in Christ are going to rise also, and the individual being baptized is "speaking" wordlessly (testifying physically) not only on his behalf, but also on the behalf of all those who have died in Christ (i.e. "the dead") when he undergoes water baptism, and in that sense he is "baptized for the dead".

I have tried to explain myself as clearly as I can. I am a bit "tentative" about this because after 50 years reading my Bible, this is the first time that this explanation has occurred to me (I have never read this from any one else). It seems like it is sound Scripturally, but I wouldn't fight over this issue, and if someone could show me where I may be wrong, I sure wouldn't feel bad.