[pbiwolski]

Originally Posted by stephanos' friend

If Jesus was offering a literal kingdom, available immediately, why didn't He bring it when the people wanted it?

Matt. 26:56
But all this was done, that the scriptures of the prophets might be fulfilled. Then all the disciples forsook him, and fled.

You get the idea. Furthermore, what he refers to here is not how God planned for the "crowning" of Israel's King to go down.

John 6:15
When Jesus therefore perceived that they would come and take him by force, to make him a king, he departed again into a mountain himself alone.

Originally Posted by stephanos' friend

His kingdom is a different kind than Pilate and the Jews thought—not a worldly kingdom that could be established by warfare (Jn 18:36, 37).

Oops! He missed a word when he read that verse.

John 18:36
Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence.

Yes, it will be a "worldly kingdom...established by warfare" - no doubt about that! see Zech. 14:1-9

Originally Posted by stephanos' friend

If the Kingdom does not exist yet, why did Paul speak of it as a present reality (Col. 1:13)? If the kingdom is only for Israel, why were the Colossian gentiles part of it?

Wrong kingdom. Understanding the "kingdoms" is a must in understanding the "deeper things" of the Bible. Your friend is in error in his perception of "The Kingdom of God" (to quote him). This misunderstanding only leads to another and so on. That's why this stuff is so important.