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Old 07-26-2009, 01:46 PM
custer custer is offline
Join Date: May 2009
Location: Columbia KY
Posts: 74

Originally Posted by PaulB View Post
Firstly, it is nice to interact with you and secondly, no I don't mind you partially quoting me!

I do have to say though that every word of our Lord Jesus Christ is the final revelation of God to us (as He is THE WORD in flesh). Paul is not an authority above Jesus, he was a chosen instrument who related who Christ is and what He said but to the gentile churches that he established.

How is it possible to claim that Jesus always dealt with OT law when He was clearly proclaiming what He said as the very authority that was to stand after the law (e.g. Mt.5:31 "It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:32 But I say unto you,
Paul was an apostle of our Lord Jesus Christ - he was not a seperate revelation from Him. So when we are looking at the given subject of this thread, Paul in 1 Cor.7 is not acting independently from the revelation of NT grace that he had recieved but in accordance with it.

God bless


As far as Jesus and Paul...Paul is NOT speaking "in accordance with" Jesus! Paul directly contradicts what Jesus said - comparing I Corinthians 7:10-11 and 27-28 with Matthew 19:9. This apparent contradiction can only be explained by "rightly dividing the word of truth." (II Tim. 2:15) Jesus deals with Jews that are under the law, kingdom and millenial doctrine, and such - he's not talking to "church age" Christians. Paul DOES speak directly TO US - see Romans 11:13 and 15:16; Gal. 2:2 and 2:8; Col. 1:21-29; I Tim.2:7; II Tim. 1:11...(Gentiles being defined as "Uncircumcision" in Eph.2:11)

Paul also contradicts Jesus concerning salvation: When asked how to get eternal life, Jesus told the man in Matthew 19:16-17 that he should "keep the commandments;" Paul says in Galatians 3:21, "...if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law." And again, in Titus 3:5, "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us,..." And Ephesians 2:8-9, "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast." Jesus' statement ("keep the commandments") has WORKS necessary for salvation AS OPPOSED TO PAUL who makes it clear that our salvation does NOT involve works! (Works AFTER salvation/because of salvation are a different story!)

All this to say that there's just no getting around the fact that Paul says that if a man marries AFTER HE IS LOOSED (divorced,) HE HAS NOT SINNED (I Cor. 7:27-28!) What else can we do with that passage? Somebody told me that Paul was saying we should be more concerned with the furtherance of the gospel (or something to that effect,) BUT THAT'S NOT WHAT THE BIBLE PLAINLY SAYS!