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Old 07-26-2009, 08:50 AM
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PaulB PaulB is offline
Join Date: Jun 2009
Location: The Northwest of England
Posts: 158
Default Hi Pam

Originally Posted by custer View Post
Hello PaulB!

I hope you don't mind; I just quoted the pieces of your post that I am responding to directly...

First of all, I must say that Jesus' words are not pure "NT grace" as the New Testament was not fully in effect yet (Hebrews 9:16-17.) I think Jesus always dealt with people according to the law. And as Paul is OUR apostle, his writing (and any writing that does not oppose his) should be "the final rule on all things."
Firstly, it is nice to interact with you and secondly, no I don't mind you partially quoting me!

I do have to say though that every word of our Lord Jesus Christ is the final revelation of God to us (as He is THE WORD in flesh). Paul is not an authority above Jesus, he was a chosen instrument who related who Christ is and what He said but to the gentile churches that he established.

How is it possible to claim that Jesus always dealt with OT law when He was clearly proclaiming what He said as the very authority that was to stand after the law (e.g. Mt.5:31 "It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:32 But I say unto you,
Paul was an apostle of our Lord Jesus Christ - he was not a seperate revelation from Him. So when we are looking at the given subject of this thread, Paul in 1 Cor.7 is not acting independently from the revelation of NT grace that he had recieved but in accordance with it.

God bless