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Old 03-03-2008, 04:19 AM
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Biblestudent Biblestudent is offline
Join Date: Feb 2008
Location: Philippines
Posts: 662

1 Corinthians is an epistle written when Paul was reaching the remnant of JEWS during the TRANSITION PERIOD in the book of Acts (a transition from LAW to GRACE). Tongues were a sign for the Jews. It WAS needful to have signs to confirm the word for them to believe. Now in this GRACE PERIOD, tongues have ceased; for God has stopped his dealings with the Jews (Rom. 9-11) and He's dealing now with the Body of Christ where there is no Jews, nor Gentiles.

I don't have the gift of tongues. Do I have to speak in tongues? Am I false preacher since I have no signs to "confirm the word" (Mark 16)?

Tongues are languages. If you have the gift of tongues, talk to me in Hiligaynon. I would sure marvel if I hear you speak in my own tongue, wherein I was born.

The guidelines in 1 Corinthians were set for those who spoke in tongues in the church during the early Acts period, and they have now ceased since there is no use for it today. The Jews had an advantage during the Acts period ("Jew first"), but now they don't.

Last edited by Biblestudent; 03-03-2008 at 04:20 AM. Reason: from changed to for