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Old 03-15-2008, 02:11 AM
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Biblestudent Biblestudent is offline
Join Date: Feb 2008
Location: Philippines
Posts: 662

How do we know that story was true?
I know that the beast will speak in tongues one day.
I know that the mystery of iniquity is already at work.
I know that tongues are for a sign, and the Jews require a sign, and the Gentiles don't.
If that story was true, what's the purpose? The only purpose of tongues is when God will once again speak to "this people" (1 Cor. 14:21). God will never use tongues to speak to Gentiles. God used some Gentile to speak with tongues in order to reach the remnant of "this people". Who are "this people"? (Isa. 28:11)
Tongues have no purpose today.
God has no dealings with Israel today (Romans 11).
God never use tongues to give His message to the Church today.
God use ONE tongue to communicate His Word to EVERY CREATURE today.
God uses the KING JAMES BIBLE today, not the NEW TONGUES BIBLE.

Finally, even if the story was true, it does not guarantee it's Biblical. If I pray for a cancer patient, and he got healed, Praise God for answering prayers, but that never means that I have the gift of healing or the gift of miracles (1 Cor. 14).