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Old 05-25-2008, 04:00 AM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
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Originally Posted by Truth4Today View Post
Interesting ... The Bible does seem to clearly indicate that every language should have the word of God in their language. ... that a non-English person MUST learn English to have the word of God, goes against the Scriptures on several accounts.
It is interesting, and the tone of the discussion I really appreciate.

I said "should learn English", not "must learn English", though I am implying that at some stage it would be must.

From the outset, I agree that the Scripture has historically gone forth in many languages, but that every Scripture quote that says about people saved from all tongues or languages, in the near future (i.e. Restitutional) sense would only apply to their native language, not the global language, which is English. English as a second language is already very common throughout the world.

We are told that the different languages are significant, “ There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them is without signification (1Cor. 14:10) So, not one language with all of its distinct sound is insignificant.
"Signification" does not mean so much "important" as it means "to convey signals by". The quote is talking about the capacity of creatures to communicate, not in any way specifically disallowing one language. (For example, a person facing temptations may hear various “voices”.) It is teaching about speaking in tongues: speaking in tongues alone is going to convert the Jews or the world today. So, the preaching of the Gospel by them who speak English who also have the "stammering lips" must be acceptable.

We are told that God is made known by the Scriptures to all nations, “ But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:” (Rom. 16:26) Thus, implying that each should have the Scriptures in their own language.
Actually this does not imply that each nation should have the Scripture in their own languages, though the Scripture has gone forth in many languages. In fact, this verse more clearly fits in with the idea that in the future, all nations would have the same Scripture at the same time.

We are told that on the day of Pentecost every man heard in his own language, “ And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language. And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?” (Acts 2:4-8). Their were at least 12 languages present on that day and not one person was made to learn another language other than their born.
If you believe that speaking in tongues have passed away, I could say that the implication that preaching in other languages has passed away. If you notice that the event of Acts 2 is different to the normal practice of tongues in 1 Corinthians, where Paul continually lays out the need for orderly public practice and INTERPRETATION of outspoken tongues.

We are told that every language will confess to God, “ For it is written, As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me, and every tongue shall confess to God.”(Rom. 14:11).
Actually, it says "tongue", which along with "knee" must be both literal and symbolic. As for all tongues confessing, this verse is not saying that everyone is going to be saved, and also, that there are many people who have lived, both believers and non-believers, who lived when English was not the global language. However, the Restitutional implication of this verse is that people and languages should at one time in history be all deferring to the Gospel of Christ, though, as I said before, it is not that everyone would be saved. In short, this verse does not prohibit that English or generally one language should be used in the future.

We are told that the Redeemed are from every language, “ And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;” (Rev. 5:9). God is not a respecter of tongues!!!
While it is true that people have been saved of very many nations, and that God is by implication generally no respecter of what language people have spoken (since this verse may be interpreted to apply to all Church history), yet there is an indication that while people come OUT OF various nations, etc., they also come OUT OF various tongues. This could imply an abandoning of various languages for a heaven standard language. But if we apply anything at all to the Millennium, then whatever is the standard Earth language before the Tribulation can well be the one afterwards. Since that is to be English, we find that it is likely that God would use English. But one way or the other cannot really be decided from Revelation 5:9, as it is speaking about the past, that people did believe the Scripture and Gospel in various languages.

We are told that the everlasting gospel will be preached to every language, “ And I saw another angel fly in the midst of heaven, having the everlasting gospel to preach unto them that dwell on the earth, and to every nation, and kindred, and tongue, and people,” (Rev. 14:6). The clear unequivocal implication is that every tongue will have the gospel preached in its own tongue.
Actually, this is proof that while the Gospel may come forth in various languages, and the Scripture likewise, that there is ONE GOSPEL, namely, the everlasting one, which symbolised by it being borne of the angel, is singular and universal, and that it would go to all nations and languages. (Notice the word "having" which obviously is a singular possessive.) By this I mean that the strongest indication is that in the future, according to a Restitutional view, a consistent Gospel is preached by the one King James Bible to all nations in English, aided by future developments in communication technology.

In Chapter 11 of Genesis we find that the earth is of one language (v.1, 6), however, this was not good. So God, instead of encouraging the use of one language, “ …confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech.” (v.7). Why would God create all the different languages and then want to discard them all (here on earth) for one language? It is a miracle that God’s word is translated into so many different languages.
Actually, it was good that the earth was as one language, what was not good was that man was sinning. Fast forward to out time: people might think that Satan is setting up a one language system for the Antichrist (which is true), BUT GOD IS IN CONTROL OF LANGUAGE. The fact is that today, English is the world's common language. God created all the different languages for a purpose (e.g. to keep nations in their bounds), but He has also set up for one language, namely English, for OUR GOSPEL, that is, for us.

We are told that it is better to speak five words of understanding than ten thousand in an unknown tongue, “ Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue (1Cor. 14:19).
So, while he never banned speaking in tongues, we should see that if we have the perfect Word in English, and the world is learning it as the global language, put those two things together and the true Church can reach the world.

We are told that unknown languages no better than a barbarian, “ Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.” (1Cor. 14:11). The Greeks used this word to indicate anyone ignorant of the Greek language.
The word "Greek" and the word "barbarian" are English words. And the word barbarian actually referred to culture, which included language (as the verse itself shows).

To argue that "unknown languages [are] no better than a [sic] barbarian" is actually a reason why using English, and the Bible which is exactly true, should be used to bring the Gospel to foreigners.

Therefore, unless the barbarians are turned to English, they will be kept in a low position having only imperfect Bibles or modern versions.

And if the barbarians are they who were ignorant of Greek, by the same application today, those who are ignorant of English are disadvantaged, both naturally and spiritually (notwithstanding how the Holy Ghost has worked and helped all Christians, including English speaking ones who do or did not use the King James Bible).

We are told that if you cannot interpret an unknown tongue for someone keep silent, “ If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.” (1Cor. 27-28).
This has nothing to do with the issue at hand, except to, at some stretch, imply that the Word of God in the unknown tongues (e.g. Hebrew, Greek and other languages) should be in the known language. Since the world has English as the global language, this would actually imply that other tongues should keep the silence, for their want of interpretation.

We are told that an un-interpreted tongue is not edifying, “ Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful. What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also. Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified.” (1Cor. 13-17).
Again, this verse shows nothing on the issue, but perhaps that the Word of God should go forth in the known, global language of English, for fruitful understanding.

What can we learn from all this? It is very simple, 1.) No one is forced, told, or compelled to learn another language in order to know God’s word.
Yet prophecy indicates that the Gospel would come in "another tongue", and that the world would hear what Christ called "this Gospel", and that believers should speak with one mouth, and should be perfectly joined together speaking the same thing. Surely, the abundance of Scripture evidence implies that God's Word in the future should be made known to the world and throughout the Church in one language, the Bible English of the King James Bible, and that since God is to turn people to that pure language, surely it is for the unity of the faith, so that people may call upon the true name of God with one consent. Thus, God providentially outworks to bring one common world language for the Gospel, so that there may be an advance in perfection.

2.) No language is greater (in every way) than the next.
"For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent." (Zephaniah 3:9).

Yes, English is superior to Greek to an English speaking person, yet, Greek takes precedence over the English seeing that it pre-existed the English and is where our English bible is translated from.
This is illogical for three reasons:
1. If no language is greater, then how can Greek take precedence, that is saying that Greek, which is a language, is greater.
2. If pre-existence means superiority, then Latin, Chaldee, and a whole host of other languages, including Basque, Manx and Hottentot must be superior to post-1611 English.
3. If Greek is superior to English in regards to Scripture, this implies that the full truth of the Scripture is actually in the Greek, and that in order to know the full truth, Christians should learn Greek (though they may be saved by the derivative translations), and if God is all powerful and has control of language, He would providentially outwork to turn all nations to the Greek language so that they may receive and know the full and utter truth.
4. The Greek language the Bible was written in was never spoken. And the Greek of today is different to Greek at the time of Christ.
5. Which Greek Bible is perfect? There is not one settled final TR in Greek.

3.) No non-English speacking person MUST learn English to have the word of God,
Quite true, but then, if the true Gospel is understood by English speaking Christians who know they have the perfect English Bible, and the world is learning English, and their nations are prospering, and the communication technology is in place, would not the signs and the harvest be with the Word of God in English in the future?

If, according to this Restitutional view, the Gospel comes forth in power to the world in English, what should be done now? What should be done is to set everything up, and move in line with the Scripture, and see the signal providences of God, that the future of the Gospel is in English. If English then, what must be the seed to it, but people believing and doing it now.

but the word of God should be translated into their language.
There is no need to translate the Word of God if the world speaks English.

Moreover, the Word of God should NOT be translated now, for deficiency in learning, in understanding the correct form of the Textus Receptus, in learning of the sense of the Scripture, in understanding the full breadth of the English, in other words, it is to doubt that God set up the right men with the right learning using the right language at the right time in history to make the right text and translation of the Scripture that it may rightfully used by us, as is our heritage and destiny.