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Old 10-18-2008, 11:27 AM
JMWHALEN JMWHALEN is offline
 
Join Date: Oct 2008
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Quote:
Originally Posted by PB1789 View Post
:) Well said, well phrased, and your thinking cap is on! Stick to yer guns young man! Don't let the nit-pickers get you down. The folks that claim the A.V./K.J. is "inspired" have not read The Translators to the Reader", which should be at the front of your A.V./K.J.. Those "Learned Men" never claimed to be inspired, but rather "to make a good translation ( primarily Tyndale's and also the Geneva) better."

Your point about the NKJV is "nail-on-the-head". IF they (Thomas Nelson Pubs.) had simply done things like taking off "est" and "eth" from the ends of certain words, AND had used the T.R. Greek New Testament, instead of their (Farstad and Hodges) special Greek Text,,, AND stuck with the Biblical Words concerning the San Fran/Hollywierdos types... It might have been a better work.

Your Bio says you are studying to be an Engineer---good! Keep at it and maybe someday we will see a bridge or building or an airplane that can run on H2O and fizzies tabs someday that you had a hand in . The Lord God gave us brains, and it is good to use them.

Here is a Psalm to read if you are feeling like Elijah in 1Kings 19.... A famous General once prayed this Psalm when he was feeling like Elijah; Psalm 63.
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(bold is my emphasis)

The folks that claim the A.V./K.J. is "inspired" have not read The Translators to the Reader", which should be at the front of your A.V./K.J.. Those "Learned Men" never claimed to be inspired, but rather "to make a good translation ( primarily Tyndale's and also the Geneva) better."

A few comments:

Your argument(correct me if I am wrong), is that since the KJB translators did not claim "to be inspired", and did not "opinion" this, therefore, the KJB cannot be inspired.


I contend that the doctrine of divine inspiration does not necessitate that the people God used always understanding what they wrote or said, and is not dependent upon whether or not they claimed inspiration, or whether they had knowledge that they were, in fact, being used of God to pen scripture. To wit:.


1. "I Tertius, who wrote this epistle, salute you in the Lord" Romans 16:22

Now, is all of the book of Romans inspired? Did Paul write Romans? Did he claim authorship? Is Romans 16:22 inspired? Now, did anyone, does anyone claim perfection for Tertius?" Did Tertius claim he was "inspired", or is there any evidence that he was aware that he was penning scripture? Was Tertius "moved by the Holy Ghost"(2 Peter 1:21)? Yes, "He taketh the wise in their own craftiness"(1 Cor. 3:19).

Or how about scribes that the LORD God used to preserve his word,by copies? Did they have to "claim perfection", or did they even know they were being used by God to preserve His word? Did their "opinion" matter? By that argument, the Levitical priests, fallible, uninspired men, who were used by God to preserve His word without error, had to claim perfection, and "inspiration knowledge"?:


"And it shall be, when he sitteth upon the throne of his kingdom, that he shall write him a copy of this law in a book out of that which is before the priests the Levites: And it shall be with him, and he shall read therein all the days of his life: that he may learn to fear the LORD his God, to keep all the words of this law and these statutes, to do them..." Deut. 17:18-19(see also Deut. 31:9-13, 25-26, Nehemiah 8, Malachi 2:7)

(And so much for the "scholarly" premise that "only the originals 'were'(past tense) inspired"-copies, which he "read....all the days of his life".)

2.I argue and believe that the LORD God can guide and/or inspire despite the intentions, "inspiration understanding or not", and "know-how of man"(or lack thereof).

"But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away." 1 Cor. 7:12

To be consistent with your argument, i.e., since the KJB translators did not claim to be inspired, the Apostle Paul was not penning inspired scripture, i.e., because he is not claiming to be inspired. Scripture states that he is speaking, and not the Lord. Therefore 1Cor7:12 is not inspired scripture according to your argument????!!!!!!?


"That which I speak, I speak it not after the Lord, but as it were foolishly, in this confidence of boasting." 2 Cor. 11:17

Is Paul not penning inspired scripture here either????!!!!!!! How can 2 Cor. 11:17 be inspired Scripture if Paul is speaking foolishly!? God inspires foolish speaking!!??

Can not the LORD God can guide and/or inspire, regardless of man's knowledge, or "opinion"???!!!!

3.Since when did man's "opinion", man's belief in objective truth, determine objective truth? By that logic, Christianity is false, since most of the world rejects it(and most of the world "corrects" it).


4."The Translators to the Reader"

Who said their "opinion" was inspired?

5."And one of them, named Caiaphas, being the high priest that same year, said unto them, Ye know nothing at all, Nor consider that it is expedient for us, that one man should die for the people, and that the whole nation perish not.And this spake he not of himself: but being high priest that year, he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation;.." John 11:49-51


Here, notice that a statement of inspired scripture was not understood by the one(Caiphas) saying it, nor was it recognized as part of Scripture by him. Caiphas did not even realize that he was speaking scripture, neither did he understand all that it meant.

The words are inspired, not the instruments used by the author-the LORD God.


In Christ,

John M. Whalen