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Old 03-02-2009, 11:17 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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James White brings up this accusation. In Jeremiah 34:16, he writes in his book, there is a difference between the Oxford and the Cambridge Edition. Which edition/wording is the right one?

I will give a brief answer:

Since there is only one inspiration for every word once, and that the inspired nature is only retained by preservation, most particularly in the most accurate copy/reconstruction of the original, (and) in translation, then when it comes to Jeremiah 34:16, we must choose either "whom he" or "whom ye". Only one is actually ultimately God's word in English. God would be the author of confusion if all variations were equally valid continuously.

James White claims that if the KJB is our final authority, we cannot know which is right, but if we go to the Hebrew (that is, the scholars' understanding of the Hebrew), we will able to know what is "right" in this case.

In this particular example, James White correctly understands that one reading is right, and he also discerns which is correct. However, because his method is to appeal to the Hebrew rather than the King James Bible itself, that is to say, a finite purification process of it, he will not always be right. Simply put, without starting from absolute authority, there is no absolute certain answer that can be given.

The answer which has been given by some is that every different reading in different KJB editions are right. However, there is no way logically or spiritually that "whom he" and "whom ye" can be both concurrently correct. One actually has to be correct.

God has actually only one final Word in English. It is "whom ye". We will be able to tell this is correct because it is presented in the Pure Cambridge Edition of the KJB, it was in the 1611 edition, it fits with the context, "whom he" can be easily explained as a typographical error which was perpetuated for many years, and because the Hebrew as well as other translations back up "whom ye".