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Originally Posted by Greektim
That is a toughie. Other questions...
Who had the perfect words of God (all of them) to the exclusion to others?
When was the first compilation of the GNT?
When was the first compilation of a perfect GNT (the one reflecting the originals exactly and purely)?
When was the first compilation of the NT in a translation that was perfect?
Please know...I am not asking these questions to stir trouble. I am honestly seeking to know how the KJVO would answer this. I can truthfully say that I do not know your view on this and am legitimately wanting to know. So please don't blast me for asking.
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Greektim, I feel like you are trying to stir trouble, because like many of the Bible correctors you seem to want to ASK questions but not ANSWER them. I have now asked you THREE TIMES to reply to my question below, are you unable to explain your position?
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Originally Posted by Winman
Do you have all the faithful (and how do you determine that?) translations to the HOT & GNT? In other words, do you have and possess the complete Word of God yourself?
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Originally Posted by Greektim
I don't have ALL reliable translations.
I'm too poor
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Originally Posted by Bro. Parrish
Greektim, do you think that in order to for a man to have the complete Word of God he would need MULTIPLE translations?
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Originally Posted by Bro. Parrish
Hey Greektim, I don't think you ever answered my question back in post no. 36; I put it in bold above in case you missed it. As I understand it, you are suggesting that in order to for a man to have the complete Word of God he would need enough money to purchase a COLLECTION of what you consider to be reliable translations, is that what you are saying...
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