[Steven Avery]

Hi Folks,

Originally Posted by Tandi;(friend's question)

What does one make of the New Testament use of the LXX when the KJV relies on the MT? Also, the LXX version of Jeremiah is 1/8 shorter than the MT version of the same. Why does the New Testament quote from the LXX Vorlage of the book of Jeremiah when the KJV uses the MT version of Jeremiah?

Greetings, Tandi.

One recent thread, 12/2008, here was:

http://av1611.com/forums/showthread.php?t=800
Translation or Paraphrase?

Discussing particularly Luke 4 and Isaiah - Edersheim - Hebraisti=Hebrew.

The irony is that men like John Owen had a superb understanding of the Greek OT deficiencies and that the NT authors simply applied a very pure type of 'Holy Spirit midrash' (my term, using midrash in the positive sense of solid understanding and interpretation and synthesis) when referencing the Tanach passages. That is why Jesus and Paul both would combine multiple Tanach verses in one beautiful exposition, one with 'NT value-added', ie. not just slavishly literal to the OT but with an anointing and grace and wisdom from above.

Later the Greek OT was "smoothed" towards the NT in a very absurd manner during the times of its major translations, the 2nd and 3rd centuries AD. With Psalm 14 from Romans 3 being the incredible "smoking cannon". Which is why generally the supposed NT-LXX agreements are actually agreement with nothing earlier than the ultra-corrupt Codex Vaticanus (4th century).

It is not even likely that the NT authors had most of the Greek OT available in circulation, based upon Josephus indicating very clearly the lack of the Tanach history books even 30-50 years after NT composition. Even with Josephus being in the cultural center of Rome (very little Hebrew or Aramaic spoken) where there would be far more interest in a Greek or Latin OT than in Israel.

Shalom,
Steven