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Old 05-14-2008, 08:34 AM
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Originally Posted by Diligent View Post
It has been said that some people believe that the KJV can be used to "correct the Greek" (TR). I think the TR-only scholars who laugh at this are missing the point -- since we do not have the exact TR text that the KJV translators used as their basis for translation, and yet we have faith that the KJV is 100% correct, we can in fact use it to "correct" any particular edition of the TR. The KJV is a variant of the TR and if we accept it as authoritative, it can be used to select TR readings. However, while Scrivener's attempt at creating a KJV-based-TR is laudable, it did not yield a "perfect TR," so we are left concluding that the knowledge required to purely do so simply does not exist right now. And why should it? God has his pure English Bible; nobody speaks the "Biblical original languages" any more, so what's the need?
Very well said, Diligent! That a Bible believer can use the KJV to correct the "originals" (so-called, for no true "original" exists anymore) is not an "extreme" position after all. Thank you very much!