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Old 12-18-2008, 08:11 AM
BrianT
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Quote:
In reality, it still constitutes a change of meaning if you change "believeth" to "believes".
I disagree. What is the change of meaning? What does "God loves" mean that "God loveth" doesn't?

Quote:
In the KJB, "loves" is the plural of love. While "loveth" is a verb form, I think, second person (object) loveth subject. Changing it means bad grammar.
It is not bad grammar. Grammar changes over time, and it is perfectly good grammar today. "love" can be both a noun or a verb, depending on context, and in today's grammar, "loves" as a verb is third person singular in the same way "loveth" was in the past. No meaning is changed or lost. It is exactly the same as in the past we would say "art" for second person singular, but "are" today. For third person singular, we didn't say "God iseth" even though we say "God is" today - the "eth" ending did not have a different meaning and it was not used on some verbs, which would not be the case if the meaning was different or the grammar was wrong.