ah, thanks guy,
I see what you are saying and I appreciate that answer. But when the charismatics ask us to explain why these signs are gone in our age, I have had a hard time pointing to a specific verse and saying "Before this there were signs and afterwards there were none."
I very much understand why they are gone. I think that Acts 28:28 is that verse I was looking for. But I kinda see the Gospel going to the Gentiles at ch. 13 (esp vs46). Can you explain the reason for their existence all that time?
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