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Old 11-14-2008, 02:54 AM
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stephanos stephanos is offline
 
Join Date: May 2008
Location: Wenatchee WA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bibleprotector View Post
Actually, the Latin texts were in much abundance, not minority, and they do not match very well with the Minority Greek Text. For example, the Latin has much testimony supporting various Majority readings, as well as 1 John 5:7 (which is apparently in minority even in the Majority, though rightly judged it is actually in, not out).

While the Traditional Majority Greek Text is reflected in the TR, the TR is greater because it takes into account the Latin (called the Western Family) and also takes into account the testimony from the Minority Text Family, which it knows (or rather, which its editors knew) was a corrupted. The great deception of Westcott and Hort was to favour one particular manuscript (B) of the Minority Text against all other witnesses (though probably except when Aleph was worse). This equals most modern versions.

Another deception is to follow the majority of the Majority Family only, but to have a bias toward the Minority as well, which equals the NKJV.
Yeah, I was just reading this in Dr. Hollands book (he talks about the Western unofficial text type etc). What I meant was is that the Alexandrian texts are the minority.

Anywho, thanks for clarifying that.

Peace and Love,
Stephen