My Cambridge Bible is without the question mark, an old Collins KJV that I have has the question mark. None of the examples shown below have the question mark.

I dont see Gods pure word being altered by the use or not of the question mark. The word "wherefore" still indicates a question and the sense of the passage is not altered either way, in my opinion.

This is not at all like the issue of the placement of the comma in Luk 23:43.

I wouldnt know Hebrew from Zwahili, so can anyone tell me how the passage was structured in that language? Was there a form of punctuation or was the question made obvious in another way?

(Bishops) And Zedekias shalbe caryed vnto Babylon, and there shall he be vntyll the tyme that I visite hym saith the Lorde: but if thou takest in hande to fight against the Chaldees, thou shalt not prosper.

(Geneva) And he shal lead Zedekiah to Babel, & there shall he be, vntil I visit him, saith ye Lord: though ye fight with the Caldeans, ye shall not prosper.


(KJV-1611) And he shall lead Zedekiah to Babylon, and there shall he be vntill I visit him, saith the Lord: though ye fight with the Caldeans, yee shall not prosper.

(KJVR) And he shall lead Zedekiah to Babylon, and there shall he be until I visit him, saith the LORD: though ye fight with the Chaldeans, ye shall not prosper.

fundy