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Old 03-20-2009, 07:01 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Biblestudent View Post
I think the answer is because of different publishers.
Currently, I am a 1769 guy. (That's the "final edition" for the KJV 1611 - spelling updates). But no, the words ought not be changed, which is the difference between an "edition" and a "revision" (modern versions).
if there are word differences, I'm sure there are "experts" in this forum who has well-studied the issue. So, hold on.
There are tiny differences in all editions since 1769, including in spelling. Also, any deliberate change within the KJB to standardise the spelling or correct a printer mistake is a "revision". It is an "editorial revision", not updating the underlying text or the translation.

The "1769" is not a "final answer", look at www.bibleprotector.com/purecambridgeedition.htm