Again, IF every single word, not just the 'gist' of things is important, then why is there so much discrepancy when the authors and Christ reference the OT?
Just one example from Jesus....
NT-Matt. 4:10 (
Then saith Jesus unto him,) Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, 'Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve'.
Luke 4:8 Get thee behind me, Satan: for it is written, 'Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve'.
OT- Deut. 6:13 Thou shalt fear the Lord thy God, and serve him, and shalt swear by his name.
10:20 Thou shalt fear the Lord thy God; him shalt thou serve,
and to him shalt thou cleave, and swear by his name.
Now, if I were approaching this with the forensic eye of an AV'er critiquing an MV, I would ask some obvious questions. With respect to Jesus' statement, What was it,
exactly, that He said? "Get thee
behind me..", or, "Get thee
hence.."? Or, with respect to the writing of Moses, why did he alter the prior command later on with the INSERTION OF "
and to him shalt thou cleave? Was Moses violating the very command of Deut. 4:2, merely a couple chapters before?! But, such is not my point.
Jesus used the word "fear", as in 'reverence, respect', rather than "worship"? That's a CHANGE from the OT rendering. Why did Jesus INSERT the word "only", when clearly that word is absent from the OT rendering, "him shalt thou serve". Indeed, this would seem to be one of those very things the MV's do! It would appear that Jesus is Himself stating that the LORD, God the
Father, is the ONLY one worthy of service. Surely this is not the case?
Thanks guys and gals, for your patience in helping me along with these.
