[bibleprotector]

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey

Are you suggesting that we don't possess perfect copies of the Hebrew and Greek texts?

I am not merely suggesting, I am saying that this is a fact. All manuscripts differ slightly. All printed Textus Receptus editions differ slightly. The modern texts are revised often. There is no perfect single text of either Testament.

Moreover, scholars to this day differ on what words mean, that is, on how they should be translated.

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey

I would think that for God to have preserved His Word we would have to have perfect examples in Greek and Hebrew. Am I wrong?

God never promised to preserve intact copies that were perfect. There are variations, copying errors and issues (such as missing leaves) in all copies.

The only solution is to critically gather from all sources and witnesses an absolute copy. Attempts to do this by Erasmus and others made great progress. But the final form of such workings has been the King James Bible. It is the final form of the Received Text.

The thing is, you won't find a perfect Hebrew or Greek Testament, but you can find a whole Bible, and the sense is accessible there too, because it is in the global language.

Isa 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.

This is a promise that English would be used.

Ro 16:26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:

Which nations have been converted to Christianity, or obedient by using Hebrew?

When I say that the Hebrew and Greek correct the English, what I am suggesting is that where they differ (Matthew 23:24 for example) the Greek is correct and the English is not.

This is a mistake on your part, for the wording in English is correct, and does give the sense of the Greek. A while ago on this forum, this issue was shown very thoroughly. Just look up "strain" or something to find it.

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey

I often use my Textus Receptus to be sure that I am correctly understanding the wording of the AV.

1. Which Textus Receptus? Every edition differs and none is perfect in itself.
2. The KJB is in English, how can a past language be giving light on English?
3. The wording of the KJB is sure, because it is God's Word. That does not require another Bible to interpret it.
4. How can you be sure and know the meaning of every last Greek word with certainty anyway? What is the authority of Greek meanings?

Isa 34:16 Seek ye out of the book of the LORD, and read:

Notice it is a book, not a book with other books, or book requiring a foreign interpreter. Where is the “book” singular in Hebrew? Or in Greek?