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  #18  
Old 11-29-2008, 10:45 PM
BrianT
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Hi Brandplucked,

Quote:
You told us that there never was a perfect Book of the Lord and is not one now. I affirmed that there both was and is now.
Whoa, back up a minute. Previously in our discussion, I specifically asked you if you believed: "God's "words" were always pure, but prior to 1611 they were scattered into various manuscripts, i.e. there was no single "hold in your hand" complete inerrant perfect scripture prior to 1611." You responded "You basically have it right." I also noted where, in Lacy Evan's article (which you linked to from your article), Lacy says that prior to the KJV "there was not one copy inspired to absolute perfection on the planet. The only source of truth was the 'witness of the multitude of copies'" and how you called that article "excellent". For two solid weeks our discussion has been based on this, but now it sounds like you are saying something else. Please clarify this before we continue.

Brian